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Asked: Apr 13, 2008 - 08:46 AM

Status: Closed

Should $3,000 owed on a car with a value of $4-5g's have the $3,000 rolled into a new loan? Doesn't only negative equity roll in?

I owe $2995 on an 01 Ford Explorer Sport 2 door 4x4 w/ 74, 000 miles. The other day I walked out on a dealer during the financing portion of the deal. The dealer was giving me $2750 for my vehicle. By my math, unless my knowledge of the procedure is incorrect, I would only be carrying over $245.00 into the new loan. The dealership not only carred the $245 into the new loan, but also rolled the remaining $2995 into the new loan. Blue book is $4,000 to $5000.

Is this a correct procedure or was something unscrupulous going on? To my knowledge, the only time money gets rolled into a new loan is when there is negative equity.

In Buying & Selling > Car Values
In Buying & Selling > Car Buying
2 answers - 590 days ago

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wern10

Date: Apr 13, 2008
Time: 12:00 PM

it sounds as though the salesman was trying to cover the trade plus his commission all in one transaction...ask for a manager and explain what happened cause even as a garage that sells used vehicls that doesn't seem at all fair to you.you shouldve came out of that dealership in yor new/used vehicle very happy,the sales man didnt do his math correctly,if you liked the vehicle and you like the dealersip ask for a manager and talk to him,I guarantee they'll get it corrected for you.GOOD CALL ON BEING ROOKED.It might have been an accidental glitch "maybe".

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canddmeyer

Date: Apr 13, 2008
Time: 04:15 PM

The finance person has to roll the amount owed into the loan to payoff the vehicle, then in return should be crediting $2750 towards the new vehicle. If this did not happen, then they were taking you for a ride. It might have been an honest mistake, but I doubt it.

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